MCQs PAGE - 02

 Amphotericin B is obtained from which microorganism?

1) Staphylococci

2) Streptomyces

3) Blastomyces

4) Cryptococcus



 Identify dimorphic fungi.

1) Cryptococcus neoformans

2) Candida albicans

3) Histoplasma capsulatum

4) Aspergillus fumigatus


 Griseofulvin isolated from ___________________________culture.

1) Penicillium notatum

2) Penicillium crysofulvum

3) Penicillium griseus

4) Penicillium griseofulvum


 Echinocandin B derived from________________________.

1) Aspergillus nidulans

2) Aspergillus niger

3) Penicillium notatum

4) Streptomyces


 Which is a synthetic antifungal drug?

1) Echinocandin B

2) Caspofungin

3) Ketoconazole

4) Amphotericin B


 Which one is active metabolite of azathioprine?

1) Disulfiram

2) Metronidazole

3) Mercaptopurine

4) Clopidogrel



 The following antiepileptic drugs have anxiolytic properties except one:

1) Gabapentin

2) Pregabalin

3) Valproate

4) Phenytoin


 Which substance is an analogue of somatostatin?

1) Exenatide

2) Octreotide

3) Glipizide

4) Tolbutamide


 How many liters of urine voided in 24 hr from kidney in usual conditions?

1) 2.5 litres

2) 1.5 litres

3) 3.5 litres

4) 1.2 litres


 Which diuretic compete with aldosterone?

1) amiloride

2) trimterene

3) furosemide

4) spironolactone



 Nicotine is act on acetylcholine ______________________receptor.

1) α3,β2

2) α4,β2

3) α3,β1

4) α4,β1



 Which is the medicine that reduces the production of thyroid hormone?

1) Livothyroxine

2) Livothyronine

3) Carbimazole

4) Radio iodine


 The following drugs are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism except one:

1) Carbimazole

2) Propylthiouracil

3) Livothyronine

4) Radio iodine


 Which drug is used in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

1) Bumetanide

2) Bendroflumethiazide

3) Furosemide

4) Trimterene


 Which is a selective COX-1 (cyclooxygenase) inhibitor?

1) Celecoxib

2) Piroxicam

3) Ibuprofen

4) Flurbiprofen


  70 kg man has __________grams of iron in his body.

1) 5

2) 4

3) 0.7

4) 0.5


 Choose the option based on the amount of iron.

1) Haemoglobin > transferrin > cytochromes > myoglobin

2) Haemoglobin > myoglobin > cytochromes >vtransferrin

3) Hytochromes > haemoglobin > myoglobin > transferrin

4) Cytochromes > myoglobin > haemoglobin > transferrin



 Which is a Vitamin K antagonist?

1) Hirudin

2) Tirofiban

3) Warfarin

4) Clopidogrel


  Kininogen is a________________________protein.

1) Plasma β globulin

2) Plasma α globulin

3) Plasma δ globulin

4) Plasma γ globulin


 Which is a selective β-1 receptor antagonist?

1) Des-Arg Hoe 140

2) Icatibant

3) Kallikrein

4) Kininogen



 Which is a selective β-2 receptor antagonist?

1) Kallikrein

2) Des-Arg Hoe 140

3) Kininogen

4) Icatibant



 Which substance is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor?

1) Montelukast

2) Glucocorticoids

3) Zileutin

4) Dimaprit



 Which substance is a renin inhibitor?

1) Captopril

2) Enalkiren

3) Spironolactone

4) Losartan



 Which substance is an ACE (acetylcholinesterase) inhibitor?

1) Enalkiren

2) Spironolactone

3) Clonidine

4) Captopril



 In the following diseases conditon ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) inhibitor role is important except one : 

1) Hypertention

2) Hypotension

3) Cardiac failure

4) Diabetic nephropathy


 The following medicines are angiotensin-2 receptor antagonists except one:

1) Losartan

2) Candesartan

3) Captosartan

4) Irbesartan


 Which anti-fungal medicine produces side effects like Stevens Johnson syndrome?

1) Miconazole

2) Flucytosine

3) Fluconazole

4) Itraconazole


  _____________________ is a prodrug of penciclovir.

1) Valganciclovir

2) Ganciclovir

3) Valaciclovir

4) Famciclovir


 Platelets have a low affinity for the________________receptor.

1) IgD

2) IgE

3) IgM

4) IgG



 Which drug is an integrase inhibitor?

1) Zanamivir

2) Ratelgravir

3) Oseltamivir

4) Tenofovir



 Which drug inhibits the neuraminidase enzyme?

1) Maraviroc

2) Ratelgravir

3) Zanamivir

4) Enfurvitide



 Which species are responsible for eye disease and infertility?

1) Chlamydia trachomatis

2) Treponema pallidum

3) Bacillus anthracis

4) Clostridium tetani



 Which anthelmintic drugs have nicotine-like action?

1) Ivermectin

2) Diethyl carbamazine

3) Levamisole

4) Niclosamide



 Which histamine H2 receptor antagonists cause gynecomastia side effects?

 1) Ranitidine

2) Nizatidine

3) Famotidine

4) Cimetidine



 Which H2 antagonist is not taken intramuscularly and intravenously?

1) Ranitidine

2) Nizatidine

3) Famotidine

4) Cimetidine



 Which drug potentiates anticoagulants and tricyclic anti-depressants?

1) Omeprazole

2) Esomeprazole

3) Cimetidine

4) Ranitidine


 Which receptor does gastrin act on?

1) SSR 2 ( signal sequence receptor )

2) CCK2 (cholecystokinin )

3) M3 (Muscarinic ) receptor

4) EP2/3 (Prostaglandin) receptor



 In which cardiac action potential phase do class IV antiarrhythmic drugs act?

1) Pacemaker potential (phase 4)

2) Rapid depolarization (phase 0)

3) Plateau (phase 2)

4) Depolarization (phase 3)



 Which diuretic acts on the distal tubule?

1) Hydrochlorothiazide

2) Spironolactone

3) Eplepenone

4) Furosemide



 Somatriptan acts on the ________________________receptor.

1) 5-HT1A

2) 5-HT1D

3)  5-HT2 

4) 5-HT3


 Which medicine is used for depression?

1) Pizotifen

2) Buspirone

3) Fluoxetine

4) Somatriptan



 Which medicine is used for anxiety?

1) Buspirone

2) Somatriptan

3) Ondansetron

4) Fluoxetine



 Which medicine is used for the treatment supraventricular tachycardia?

1) Atropine

2) Adrenaline

3) Adenosine

4) Digoxin



 Which medicine is used in the prevention of migraine?

1) Somatriptan

2) Fluoxetine

3) Ondansetron

4) Pizotifen


 Which drug is responsible for producing jaundice?

1) Chlorpromazine

2) Clozapine

3) Olanzapine

4) Flupentixol



 Which antipsychotic drug causes agramocytosis?

1) Amisulpride

2) Flupentixol

3) Clozapine

4) Decanoate



 The following are typical antipsychotic drugs except one:

1) Promazine

2) Chlorpromazine

3) Haloperidol

4) Clozapine


 Which is a long acting opioid antagonist?

1) Naltrexone

2) Naloxone

3) Pentazocine

4) Alvimopan



 Which opioid analgesic is primarily used in postoperative pain?

1) Codeine

2) Tramadol

3) Dextropropoxyphene

4) Remifentanil


 Which drug has mixed agonist-antagonist (K agonist and mu receptor antagonist or weak partial agonist) property?

1) Etorphine

2) Codeine

3) Nalorphine

4) Dextropropoxyphene


 MODY (maturity onset diabetes of the Youth) is part of which type of diabetes?

1) TYPE-2 diabetes

2) TYPE-1 diabetes

3) Gestational diabetes

4) Diabetes insipidus



  Which cytotoxic drug is used as an antiemetic agent?

1) Nabilone

2) Tamoxifen

3) Etoposide

4) Paclituxel



  Which drug is used in the treatment of germ cell tumors?

1) Lomistine

2) Cisplatin

3) Cyclophosphamide

4) Busulfan



 The following antimetabolite drugs act on the purine pathway except one:

1) Fludarabine

2) Cladibrime

3) Tegafur

4) Nelarbime



  Nicotinic acid acts on which receptor to produce its lipid-lowering property?

1) HM73A

2) HM74A

3) HM71A

4) HM72A



  HMG-COA reductase full form  is  __________________________________________.

1) 3-Hydroxy -4 methyl glutaryl -coA reductase

2) 3-Hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl -coA reductase

3) 4-Hydroxy -4 methyl glutaryl -coA reductase

4) 4-Hydroxy -3 methyl glutaryl -coA reductase



  Which condition is a risk factor for atheromatous disease?

1) Raised low density cholesterol 

2) Raised high density cholesterol 

3) Reduced high density cholesterol 

4) Diabetes mellitus

5) More than one option



 What is the particle size  of HDL (high density lipoprotein ) ?

1) 7-20 nm

2) 20-30 nm

3) 30-80 nm

4) 100-1000 nm



  Which lipoprotein contains the apoB-48 protein?

1) HDL particle

2) VLDL particle

3) LDL particle

4) Chylomicrons



  Which lipoprotein contains the apoB-100 protein?

1) LDL particle

2) HDL particle

3) VLDL particle

4) Chylomicrons



  Which medicine is used in Raynaud's disease?

1) Carvedilol

2) Bisoprolol

3) Nifedipine

4) Bosentan



  The normal systolic pulmonary pressure range in adults is _________________.

1) 5 mmHg

2) 15 mmHg

3) 10 mmHg

4) 20 mmHg



  Which antihypertensive drug class has the highest level of impotence side effects? 

1) ACE (Angiotensin-converting-enzyme) inhibitors

2) Thiazide diuretics

3) AT1 (angiotensin II type 1 receptor) antagonists

4) B-adrenoceptor antagonist



  which antihypertensive drug class possess highest postural hypotension side effect?

1) thiazide diuretics

2) ACE inhibitors

3) Alpha1-adrenoceptor antagonists

4) B-adrenoceptor antagonists



  Which drug is a renin inhibitor?

1) Losartan

2) Ramipril

3) Hydralazine

4) Aliskiren


  The following drugs are directly acting vasodilators except one :

1) Nifedipine

2) Diltiazem

3) Ramipril

4) Verapamil



  Which drug increases guanyl cyclase activity?

1) Epoprostenol

2) Glyceryl trinitrate

3) B2-adrenoceptor

4) Adenosine


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