MCQs PAGE - 01

The drug entacapone acts on the ___________________ enzyme.

1) Monoamine oxidase (MAO-B)

2) Dopamine hydroxylase

3) DDC (dopamine decarboxylase)

4) COMT(catechol ortho-methyl transferase)


Which drug is responsible for producing neutropenia and agranulocytosis?

1) Thioureylenes

2) Levothythyroxine

3) Liothyronine

4) Radioiodine


Which drug inhibits thymidine kinase enzyme?

1) Saquinavir

2) Sildenafil

3) Aciclovir

4) Captopril


 Which substance is a dopamine (D2) receptor agonist?

1) Ethinylestradil

2) Bromocriptine

3) Isoprenaline

4) Vareniciline


 Which drug is responsible for blocking the renal tubule Na+ channel?

1) Amiloride

2) Tetrodotoxin

3) Local anaesthetics

4) Divalent cations(cd+2)



 Which drug is an estrogen receptor antagonist?

1) Chlorpromazine

2) Propranolol

3) Tamoxifen

4) Naloxone


 Picrotoxin act on the_______________________________.

1) ATP-sensitive K+ channels

2) GABA gated Cl- channels

3) Voltage gated Cl- channels

4) Renal tubule Na+ channels


 Plasma has a pH of ___________.

1) 7.2

2) 7.4

3) 3

4) 8


 Which protein does warfarin bind to?

1) Albumin

2) β-globulin

3) Tubulin

4) Endothelin


 Which medicine is taken by the sublingual route?

1) Tetracycline

2) Indometacin

3) Thyroxine

4) Glyceryl trinitrate



 Which medicine is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

1) Fentanyl

2) Dorzolamide

3) Buprenorphine

4) Diazepam


 The plasma volume per body weight is _____________.

1) 0.041/kg

2) 0.051/kg

3) 0.061/kg

4) 0.071/kg



 The total extracellular volume of the body by weight is ____________.

1) 0.31/kg

2) 0.51/kg

3) 0.41/kg

4) 0.21/kg


By weight, the amount of water in the body is ________________.

1) 0.661/kg

2) 0.771/kg

3) 0.551/kg

4) 0.441/kg


Which isoenzyme p450 is responsible for the effects of alcohol and paracetamol?

1) CYP2E1

2) CYP2B6

3) CYP1A2

4) CYP2D6


 Which p450 isoenzyme is responsible for the metabolism of cyclophosphamide and methadone?

1) CYP2C9

2) CYP2C8

3) CYP1A2

4) CYP2B6


 Which sulfonamide compound has anti-epileptic effect?

1) Sulfanilamide

2) Zonisamide

3) Sulfamethoxazole

4) Sulfasalazine



 Which drug is responsible for the deficiency of folic acid?

1) Warfarin

2) Omeprazole

3) Ethambutol

4) Phenytoin



 What effect does somatostatin have on insulin and glucagon?

1) Increase insulin,decrease glucagon

2) Increase insulin,increase glucagon

3) Decrease insulin, decrease glucagon

40 Decrease insulin,increase glucagon



Which drug inhibits both the cardiac output and the release of meditators?

1) Adrenaline

2) Prostacyclin

3) Corticosteroids

4) Dobutamine


 Bupropion is contraindicated for the patient with _____________.

1) Seizure

2) Anxiety

3) Diabetes

4) Asthma


 Disulfiram is contraindicated for ____________patient.

1) Hypertension 

2) Hypotension 

3) GERD (Gastroesophageal reflux disease)

4) Asthma



 Which drug has the highest dependency liability?

1) Ethanol

2) Cannabis

3) Morphine

4) Mescaline



 Amitriptyline is used for the treatment of depression and _____________.

1) Anxiety disorder

2) Neuropathic pain

3) Fibromyalgia

4) Bipolar depression



 Which medicine is used for the treatment of  fibromyalgia?

1) Nortriptyline

2) Amitriptyline

3) Duloxetine

4) Fluoxetine



 Which medication is used in the treatment of depression, anxiety disorder and fibromyalgia?

1) Fluoxetine

2) Olanepine

3) Fluoxetine

4) Sibutramine



 Which are the potent anti-inflammatory agent?

1) Selective COX-2 (Cyclooxygenase) inhibitors

2) Non-Selective COX-2 (Cyclooxygenase) inhibitors

3) DMARDS (Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs )

4) Glucocorticoids



 Which is the osmotic laxative?

1) Docusate

2) Lactulose

3) Senna

4) Ispaghula


 Which drug is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?

1) Levothyroxine

2) Liothyronine

3) Propranolol

4) Cyproterone


 Which drug acts by scavenging toxic oxygen metabolites produced by neutrophils?

1) Methotrexate

2) Penicillamine

3) Chloroquine

4) Sulfasalazine


 The drug ciclosporin is obtained from ___________.

1) Bacteria

2) Virus

3) Fungus

4) Protozoa



 Mercaptopurine is a metabolite of which drug?

1) Azathioprine

2) Mycophenolate mofetil

3) Leflunomide

4) Glucocorticoids




 Orlistat is used in the treatment of obesity and is also useful for ______________.

1) Type 2 diabetes

2) Type 1 diabetes

3) Gout

4) Atherosclerosis



 Fibrinolytic agents are contraindicated for the following conditions except one:

1) Pregnancy

2) Uncontrolled hypertension

3) Internal bleeding

4) Uncontrolled hypotension


 Which adenosine (p2Y) receptor antagonist causes side effects of neutropenia and thrombocytopenia?

1) Ticlopidine

2) Clopidogrel

3) Prasugtel

4) None of the above



  Clopidogrel exerts potential action with _____________.

1) Chlorphenaramine

2) Omeprazole

3) Domeperidone

4) Chlorothiazide



 Which drug antagonizes the GP 2b/2a receptors(Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa)?

1) Hirudin

2) Ticlopidine

3) Abciximab

4) Clopidogrel


 Which medicine reduces the absorption of warfarin in the gut?

1) Colestyramime

2) Carbamazepine

3) Rifampicin

4) Vitamin k


 Warfarin has a potentiation of effect in the following disease conditions except one:

1) Liver disease

2) Fever

3) Thyrotoxicosis

4) Hypothyroidism



 All of the following drugs enhance the effect of anti-coagulant agents except one:

1) Co-trimoxazole

2) Ciprofloxacin

3) Metronidazole

4) Carbamazepine


 Which drug affects vitamin K?

1) Phenylbutazone

2) Cephalosporins

3) Sulfonamide

4) Moxalactum



 The following diseases are caused by deficiency of Vitamin K except one:

1) Sprue

2) Celiac disease

3) Steatorrhea

4) Hematomas


 Heparin is not absorbed from the gut due to ______________________________.

1) It's charge and high molecular weight

2) It's charge and low molecular weight

3) Interaction with food

4) Interact with flora



 Heparin intramuscular injection causes ___________________.

1) Hematomas

2) Thrombophilia

3) Coeliac disease

4) Obstructive jaundice



 Which vitamin is made in the intestine?

1) Vitamin K2

2) Vitamin K1

3) Vitamin B6

4) Vitamin B12


 Vitamin K is essential for the following clotting factors except one:

1) Factor II (prothrombin)

2) Factor VII 

3) Factor VIII

4) Factor IX (Christmas factor)


 The following effects are seen after activation of the ETA(endothelin ) receptor except for one:

1) Vasoconstriction

2) Bronchoconstriction

3) Stimulation of aldosterone secretion

4) Vasodilation


 Which prostanoid is used in postpartum haemorrhage?

1) Dinoprostone

2) Misoprostol

3) Carboprost

4) Gemeprost


 Which prostanoid is used in primary pulmonary hypertension?

1) Alprostadil

2) Epoprostenol

3) Gemeprost

4) Dinoprostone


Which prostenoid is used in open-angle glaucoma?

1) Epoprostenol

2) Alprostadil

3) Latanoprost

4) Misoprostol

 Zilutein acts on the _____________ enzyme.

1) 5-lipooxygenase

2) 15-lipoxygenase

3) Glutatione 5-transferase

4) Gamma -glutamyl transpeptidase



 What is the size of the virus?

1) 10-20 nm

2) 20-30 nm

3) 30-40 nm

4) 40-50 nm



 Which host cell structure does infant diarrheal rotavirus target?

1) Beta-adrenoceptors

2) Helper T lymphocytes CD4 glycoprotein

3) MHC (major histocompatibility complex) molecules

4) T-lymphocyte interleukin-2  receptor


 Cold sores are caused by __________________.

1) Varicella zoster

2) Typhi adenovirus

3) Rhino virus

4) Herpes labials


 Which derivative is formed by the phosphorylation of zidovudine ?

1) 5-Monophosphate

2) 5-Triphosphate

3) 15-Monophosphate

4) 15-Triphosphate



Which mammalian enzyme produces resistance to the zidovudine effect?

1) γ (gamma) - DNA

2) β (beta) - DNA

3) α (alpha) - DNA

4) δ (delta) - DNA


 The following medicines are protease inhibitors except one:

1) Amprenavir

2) Atazanavir

3) Indinavir

4) Abacavir



Which drug inhibits viral DNA polymerase?

1) Aciclovir

2) Saquinavir

3) Laminadine

4) Zidovudine



 Which drug inhibits neuraminidase enzyme?

1) Ratelgravir

2) Saquinavir

3) Indinavir

4) Oseltamivir


The drug Tribavirim has a similar structure to ______________.

1) Thymine

2) Thymidine

3) Guanine

4) Guanosine


Neuroaminidase is a ______________________.

1) One transmembrane protein

2) Two transmembrane protein

3) Three transmembrane protein

4) Four transmembrane protein


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